Questions
- Is it possible to buy a home with no
money down?
- How does an interest-only mortgage
work?
- Is there such a thing as a no-cost or
no-fee loan?
- What is escrow?
- What is the difference between escrow
and a mortgage?
- What is amortization?
- Do I have to disclose a parent's gift?
- I am within the 30-day locking period
in the middle of buying a house. How can I choose whether to
lock the mortgage rate now or wait a couple of weeks?
- What's the difference between "taking
title subject to" and assuming an existing loan?
- How do I calculate the total amount a
mortgage will cost over the life of the loan?
- Situation: a person takes out a
mortgage on his property. Later, he declares bankruptcy, and
it's discovered that the deed had two names on it, and the
second person never signed the mortgages. Are the mortgages
valid?
- Does the interest accruing on a
mortgage always start from the day when the mortgage is
booked?
- What are some of the risks, as a
seller, of having someone assume our mortgage?
- If an income property were for sale
for $300,000 for example, how much would I need to put down,
and how much could I finance?
- If I'm currently unemployed, would a
bank be likely to give me a commercial loan to buy income
property?
- How does an impound account work?
- Where online can I learn about
mortgages?
- Do you have to sell your home to file
bankruptcy even if the house is paid for?
- I've been in debtors court with a
delinquent mortgage. Is it possible for me to buy another
home? Are there programs available to me while I am debtors
court?
- Are all licensed real estate agents
able to sell HUD homes, or do they have to obtain some other
special license, designation or certification?
- Is it okay to have an interest only
mortgage for 6 months to 2 years, if you are on a fixed
income or retired?
- Is there such thing as a 4 payment
option loan with a minimum start rate of 1.95% (fixed for 12
months) that has a 7.5% annual cap for the first payment
option that does NOT accrue negative AM?
- Can I get financial assistance for a
fixer-upper?
- What is a "loan broker", and how do I
find one?
- Can a home owner leave money in their
escrow account and borrow from it later?
- Is it possible to transfer real
estate property to my son? Is there another way to secure
personal property from liability?
- In a joint tenants / survivorship
situation, if some owners wish to sell and others don't, can
a sale be forced by the court?
- What is a first time home buyer loan?
- Is it legal to buy a 4 units build
with 80% loan from the bank and the 20% with the seller
financing?
- Is it easier for a couple to get a
mortgage if they're married?
- Are monthly impound payments
disclosed in the note?
- How can I get a government grant for
home improvement?
- I was approved for a 100% financial
mortgage but the realtor is requesting $10,000 in good faith
money? What does that mean?
- Is it possible to buy a
home with no money down?
- Yes,
No down payment is one of the top two reasons most
people continue renting. Well, with a "No Money Down"
program, the days of saving up for a large down payment
could be over. If you have decent credit and fall into a
certain income range, you could be on the road to owning
a home with absolutely no down payment! Many people
unfortunately get stuck in the "Rent Trap". That being,
you may be able to afford a home but coming up with a
substantial down payment is difficult because of monthly
rent. Several no money down programs are available these
days, just consult a loan broker
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Also, not to be confused with INVESTMENT property for no money down which many people ask about is indeed possible. But the difference is that you must have cash on hand at your disposal. For investment property, the term NO MONEY DOWN is a play on words where technically you
don't make a down payment on the property specifically but it does take a considerable amount of cash in order to do the deal. One common method of doing this is finding someone who is facing foreclosure (you might have seen ads relating to helping people with that kind of problem) and then offering them a substantial amount of cash in exchange for the house. For example- Say the owner is facing foreclosure and is 3 months behind or more. An investor will come along and offer the owner a way out of the situation. The investor will make all of the back payments, assume the mortgage, and give the owner $5000 in cash in exchange for the house.
It ends up being a win-win situation for both parties because the investor gets a house without having to make a down payment or pay closing costs and the owner gets out of bad situation unscathed and gets PAID for it.
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The best way to buy a home with $0 down is to have excellent credit. If you have poor credit or no credit you will have to work harder to qualify.
If you have excellent credit you can put together a loan package that consists of a 1st mortgage of 80% of the sales price, plus a 2nd mortgage that is for 20% of the sales price. You pay your own closing costs and escrow set-up amounts. The rate on both loans will be a little higher than the plain vanilla mortgage with regular down payment, but the combination of the 2 payments is often lower than if you borrowed 100% in one loan because the cost of mortgage insurance is astronomical when you have a maxed out loan amount.
If you have bruised credit or no credit, work with a Loan Officer or company that understands FHA. FHA loans are not just for shaky borrowers. The
down payment requirement is as low as 3% and they are working on a zero down program. Here's the benefit. That
down payment money can be a gift from your family or even a loan from your family as long as your income qualifies you to make both payments.
I am still adding content to my mortgage site, but right now I have quite a bit of information about the whole mortgage process.
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How does
an interest-only mortgage work?
-
Interest only loans were the norm at the time of the
Great Depression of 1929. People made interest payments
on their mortgage until the final balloon payment was
due. There are many more mortgage options available now.
Currently about half of the mortgages written are
adjustable rate or interest only. Interest only
mortgages might be beneficial for people in markets
where houses appreciate rapidly and the plan is to
remain in the house for only a couple of years. The risk
is if the house depreciates in value.
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- With
an interest-only mortgage loan, you pay only the
interest on the mortgage in monthly payments for a fixed
term. After the end of that term, usually five to seven
years, you either refinance, pay the balance in a lump
sum, or start paying off the principal, in which case
the payments jump skyward.
An interest-only mortgage might be a good fit for:
-someone whose income is mostly in the form of
infrequent commissions or bonuses;
-someone who expects to earn a lot more in a few years;
-someone who truly will invest the savings on the
difference between an interest-only mortgage and an
amortizing mortgage, and who is confident that the
investments will make money.
Financial advisers don't recommend interest-only
mortgages to regular wage earners who take out
moderate-size home loans and don't have a strategy for
investing the savings.
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Is there
such a thing as a no-cost or no-fee loan?
-
There are hard costs involved in processing a mortgage. Some fees are charged by appraisers, title companies or credit bureaus. The lender usually has fees they add to the closing costs; some represent real costs of doing business with the secondary market, some are what's called "junk fees" in the industry. These are listed as underwriting fees, processing fees, rush fees, etc.
Lenders sometimes do promotions where they "eat" the fees, but be sure you understand exactly what your numbers add up to because usually the fees are handled one of three ways:
1. You pay them at closing in cash or by using credits from the seller to pay them. These might be "decorating credits" or tax credits or rent credits or some other distribution that would have otherwise come to you in cash.
2. The lender adds the closing costs and fees to the principal amount of your mortgage so that you are making payments on them for 15-30 years.
3. The interest rate you are paying is high enough to give the lender a "rebate" from the secondary market and that rebate will pay for the costs of your loan.
All three of these methods are valid ways to pay for loan costs. While number 3 might seem shady, the truth is that many times the higher rate still puts the borrower in a better position then they were and they could not have done the deal if cash were required.
Your truth is that you need to know what the numbers on the mortgage papers represent and you need to compare apples to apples and see if the deal is a good one for you. There are hundreds of lenders and loan officers out there. Keep looking if you feel like you are being railroaded.
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- No.
While some lenders occasionally promote "no-cost" loans,
banking regulators have cracked down on these
misrepresentations. Advertised "no-fee" loans may
actually cost the borrower more over the long term
because these costs are often rolled into the new note
through higher interest or more principal.
A typical no-fee loan is one where the points charged
and all fees are included in the loan principal, meaning
that the borrower does not pay these expenses at the
close of escrow, but instead ends up paying on them over
the life of the loan. The loan is called a no-fee loan
because the borrower is not charged any fees up front.
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There are no-cost loans, but those "no-costs" are
limited usually to the closing cost fees of the bank.
Some banks will basically pay the closing costs for you
and not charge it to the loan. However, you are
generally left paying the mortgage tax and recording
fees for these loans. So while you don't pay bank fees,
it isn't quite a no-cost or no-fee loan.
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What is
escrow?
- Escrow is an impartial third party
(not unsolicited) that facilitates a real estate
transaction. They make sure that all terms of the sales
contract and all applicable laws are met in a
transaction. They hold the executed deed and collect the
buyer's funds before recording said deed.
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- Escrow is a service where a
unsolicited party hold the money while a deal is going
down. Escrow reduces the potential risk of fraud by
acting as a trusted third party that collects, holds and
disburses funds according to Buyer and Seller
instructions. Escrow services are provided by a licensed
and regulated escrow agent.
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What is
the difference between escrow and a mortgage?
- Are you asking about the escrow
account that is part of your mortgage? If so, this
account is established for the purpose of paying taxes
and insurance on the mortgaged property. Each month part
of your PITI payment is placed in this account. When the
premium comes due for taxes and insurance the lender
pays them direct. Not all lenders require them...but
most do. Because if you fail to pay your taxes the
resulting lien will take precedence over the mortgage
and the lender could be left with nada due to the
property being sold for back taxes. They pay the
insurance for the same reason...no collateral in a
burned down shell of a house that is uninsured. You will
make a payment (included in your mortgage payment) of
1/12 of your taxes and 1/12th of your insurance every
month.
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- Escrow is essentially an account
where money is held until a transition is completed.
Most real estate transactions involving mortgages also
involve an escrow company to properly distribute the
money to the interested parties.
A mortgage is a secured loan where the lender holds
ownership of the property until all the principal of the
loan is paid off.
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What is
amortization?
From
http://www.bankrate.com
You can define the term easily if you have a solid education in the basics of finance. You probably know what it is if you've bought a house once or twice. Or maybe you know sorta, kinda what "amortization" means, but not really. For an explanation, let's turn to experts who promise not to bore you to tears.
First up, we have Philip Russel, assistant professor of finance at Philadelphia University, who defines amortization as "the systemic payment plan -- such as a monthly payment -- so that your loan is paid off over the specified loan period."
So an amortized loan is for one specific amount that is to be paid off by a certain date, usually in equal monthly installments. Your car loan and home loan fit that definition. Your credit card account doesn't because it's a revolving loan with no fixed payoff date.
That's only part of what lenders mean when they talk about amortization.
Chris Edwards, manager of the business-to-consumer Web site for IndyMac Bank Home Lending, a mortgage lender, points out that "amortization" arises from a Latin term that means "to deaden," and that a common dictionary definition includes the phrase "gradual extinguishment."
"This term sounds about as fun as a 'pre-need' funeral service sales presentation," he e-mails.
(By the way, the word "mortgage" has the same Latin root, and literally means "dead pledge." The property is "dead" to the borrower if he defaults on the debt, and the pledge is "dead" to the lender after the loan is repaid. That's how people coined words in the 14th century.)
Amortization is less about death than about shrinkage (or "gradual extinguishment").
"A part of the payment goes toward the interest cost and the remainder of the payment goes toward the principal amount -- the amount borrowed," Russel says. Interest is computed on the current amount owed "and thus will become progressively smaller as the ending balance of the loan reduces." See? Shrinkage.
Back to Edwards: "If you've ever had a mortgage, you'll know that you seem to pay a lot toward interest and not much toward the principal balance for the first several years of your loan," he says. "This isn't a complex financial scheme dreamed up by gray-suited bankers in an underground conference room, but rather simple mathematics."
Take a mortgage loan for $100,000 at 6.5 percent for 30 years. The monthly principal and interest payment is $632.07. For the first month, you owe interest for $100,000, which equals $541.67. The remainder of the payment, $90.40, goes toward principal. In other words, your debt is reduced by $90.40.
"Next month, you only owe interest on $99,909.60, so $541.18 goes to interest and $90.89 goes to principal," Edwards says. "Month after month, your interest portion will decrease a bit and your principal reduction will increase. This process continues until your 360th payment contributes $3.41 to interest and $628.66 to principal."
You can see how this works by consulting Bankrate.com's mortgage calculator, which lets you type in any mortgage amount, interest rate and term, or length of loan.
The calculator gives you the option of looking at an amortization table, also known as an amortization schedule. This table tells how much interest and how much principal is included in each monthly payment, from the first to the last.
In the above example, "you'll be delighted to see that after 256 payments, you've paid off about half of your loan," Edwards says. That's 21 years and four months. You pay off the other half of the principal in the remaining eight years and eight months.
Now, if the loan above amortized for 15 years instead of 30 years, the monthly principal and interest would cost $871.11.
In the first month, you still would pay $541.67 in interest because the amount of the loan is the same and the interest rate is the same. But you would pay $329.44 in principal with that first payment because you're paying off the loan quicker.
"OK, so it's not simple mathematics, but it's not exactly deadening either," Edwards says.
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Do I have
to disclose a parent's gift?
Having generous parents is nothing to
hide. An estimated one-third of first-time buyers
purchase their home with a loan or a money gift from
their parents.
Lenders will ask for a gift letter stating that no
repayment of the "gift" is expected. In addition to the
letter, a lender can ask for two or three months' worth
of statements for the account where the down payment
funds are located. If the money was recently placed into
that account, the lender may ask where it came from and
request verification of that source as well.
Resources:
* "The Homebuyer's Survival Guide," Kenneth W. Edwards,
Dearborn Financial Publishing, Chicago; 1994.
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I am
within the 30-day locking period in the middle of buying a
house. How can I choose whether to lock the mortgage rate
now or wait a couple of weeks?
-
What's
the difference between "taking title subject to" and
assuming an existing loan?
- Taking a title subject to is usually
not used to define the status of a mortgage. It is more
commonly used to refer to some condition that exists on
the title to the property. i.e. an easement,
common areas, etc.
Taking title 'subject to" a loan will leave you in a
position of liability. If the seller has a loan they are
supposed to continue to pay and don't the home will be
foreclosed on and sold. You don't get to keep your
"part" of the homeownership and they are under no
obligation to reimburse you what you have spent towards
buying the home. Further, if you had secured secondary
financing on the home you would STILL be obligated to
pay off this debt, even if the home was no longer
"yours".
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- Taking title subject to the mortgage,
means that the mortgage continues to encumber the
property but you are not personally liable to pay the
mortgage. Assuming the mortgage means that you are
agreeing to be personally liable to pay the mortgage.
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How do I
calculate the total amount a mortgage will cost over the
life of the loan?
-
Situation: a person takes out a mortgage on his property.
Later, he declares bankruptcy, and it's discovered that the
deed had two names on it, and the second person never signed
the mortgages. Are the mortgages valid?
- Yes. The mortgages are valid. being
obligated by the mortgage is not a requirement to "hold
title" to a property. It happens all the time with older
people having mortgages and then later adding their
child to the deed in case something happens to them. Not
a good idea, by the way. The mortgage is a debt owned by
the person that signed on the dotted line. Now,
unfortunately, for the second person on the deed only.
The mortgage is secured by this property and they will
pursue this.
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Disclaimer: I'm not a lawyer and if this situation applies to you, consult a lawyer in your state.
Assuming the title search came up with only one owner and the bank lent the money on that assumption, there are two possibilities that can happen. The bankruptcy court could force the sale of the person's portion of the property or the bank could file a claim from the title insurance. The mortgages would most likely not be deemed valid and more than likely, the county recorder would have rejected the mortgage prior to this being an issue. In New York, where I am, the county clerk reviews all documents and all recorded documents on the property to see if the mortgage is done correctly. So, while the mortgage is invalid, the promissory note (remember, a "mortgage" has two parts. The first being the note which is your personal promise to pay the money back and the second part is the mortgage proper which gives the house as collateral for the loan in the event of default) still would stand and a bankruptcy court may force the sale of the debtor's share of the property if not the whole property. However, I will research this answer further and see what the law says.
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Does the
interest accruing on a mortgage always start from the day
when the mortgage is booked?
-
Interest begins accruing the day that the lender's money
is used. That is on the day the check or wired funds are
good. That could be the same day on a purchase or 3-5
days after closing on a refinance.
First mortgages are almost always simple interest and
are almost always due on the 1st of the month. The odd
days interest from the time you close until the 1st are
handled at closing.
When you make a payment, you are paying the interest for
the previous month. When you pay off the loan early, as
in a refinance, you might have to pay off more interest
than you were expecting because of this.
If you asked for a payoff figure good for today, you
would be paying the principal plus any fees or charges
on the account plus this much interest: The amount of
interest from the 1st of this month thru today because
the payment you made back on the 1st paid for last
month.
If you are paying later than today and not making a
payment that is due, you have to calculate the interest
and late fees up to the day the bank gets the check.
If you are paying off today and you have to overnight
the check or wire, make sure you add in the interest
until it gets there and is opened during regular
business hours.
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Interest accrues on a mortgage from the day the loan is
funded. For instance, if you refinance your home and
your closing is today, 10/17/2004 and it's your primary
residence, you have a three day right to cancel. As such
your loan will fund on Thursday 10/21/2004. Even though
you signed the documents on 10/17, the interest doesn't
start accruing until 10/21. However, be aware that if
you're paying off an old mortgage, the interest on that
is still being charged until it is paid off on or about
10/22.
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What are
some of the risks, as a seller, of having someone assume our
mortgage?
- If your Buyer ceases to make payments
the lender can seek you out for payment UNLESS YOU HAVE
THE BUYER GO THRU THE QUALIFYING PROCESS WITH SAID
LENDER. At which point the fees associated with this are
about the same as them getting new financing.
Personally, I would never let someone assume my
mortgage. I have seen people (sad confused people)
trying to understand why "after all this time" they are
getting nasty grams from the Lender demanding payment.
Also, you would need to look VERY carefully at your
original mortgage docs (Deed of Trust). Because unless
this is an old, old mortgage, Most Lenders have specific
wording stating that a borrower would have to qualify to
assume the loan.
**Yes, it is a risk for the seller. Unless the Buyers
qualify to assume the loan. Until they do the Seller has
a degree of responsibility for repayment of the loan. It
depends on the Lender, Banking Laws, and State Laws as
to how far the lender can pursue a Seller for repayment
of a loan they originated, let a buyer assume, and that
the Buyer's have defaulted on. Bottom line- get the
property off your list...make the buyer's qualify for
their own new financing or at the very least fully
qualify with your lender to assume the loan.
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I'm not completely sure about this but as far as I know
the mortgage company continues to report the pay history
to the credit bureaus, so it's "possible" that if the
person who assumed the loan either was late or defaulted
on the loan it could affect your credit. Can someone
verify if this is correct, maybe it's possible when the
loan is assumed that the mortgage company then reports
the history for the new person??
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If someone assumes your mortgage and your lender "qualifies" them and then releases you from liability, you will be OK as soon as the lender changes the name on the loan and begins reporting to the credit bureaus under that person's name. In the meantime, their payments will be reported as yours, since the credit bureaus think it is still you.
Once the lender has changed the name on the account and started to report it under someone else's name, your account on the credit report will state "assumed by another party".
If you let someone assume the loan without being credit qualified and the records changed, all the risk is yours. Back in the old days, FHA allowed assumptions without qualification and there could still be some of those loans around to assume. In that case, after 5 years of timely payments, you are considered "off the hook" by FHA, although the credit bureaus will continue to report according to the information they have, which could be good or bad for you.
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If an
income property were for sale for $300,000 for example, how
much would I need to put down, and how much could I finance?
- Investment properties usually require
at least 20 % up front. How much you can finance is
dependant on your credit...not the property.
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- 30,000
& 270,0000. This is a 10% down payment with
financing on the remaining 90% of the sale price.
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- There is no set amount that must be
put down on an investment property it is dependant on
other criteria other than just the down payment.
We have financed investment properties with as little as
5% down. 5% down is $15,000.
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If I'm
currently unemployed, would a bank be likely to give me a
commercial loan to buy income property?
- In
order to get a commercial loan you would have to prove
that your business and the location of the property will
cause the business to prosper well enough to pay the
mortgage. Secondly, a commercial lender wants to see an
exit strategy as a determination of how the loan will
get paid off in the event of a business failure.
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- It
would be tough. But if you have a large enough down
payment it is possible.
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How does
an impound account work?
- The lender collects funds from
borrowers based on projected property taxes and
insurance bills. Money is usually collected at closing
to fund the impound account. After closing, funds to
cover property tax and insurance bills are collected
from the borrower, usually on a monthly basis. The
borrower receives interest on the money in the account.
The lender pays the property tax and insurance bills.
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- 11/12th of your annual taxes and 1/12th of your annual insurance are collected. They are the TI of the PITI payment you hear about. You start with enough at close that with the monthly payments you make they will have a full years
premium when the bills come due again. This amount will change (as premiums go up) . Most lenders require impound accounts to protect their
collateral (fire ins.) and their lien position (taxes). Interest on this account used to be more common but is now rare, if not extinct.
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Where
online can I learn about mortgages?
- A wealth of information can be found
at
http://www.amrecorp.com Just search "faq" or you can
email our experts with any questions that you may have.
Email Us
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- Go
to
http://www.yahoo.com and click on finance.
This site is full of useful market information, however,
if you have a specific question our experts will be
happy to answer your questions.
Email Us
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Do you
have to sell your home to file bankruptcy even if the house
is paid for?
Generally, "no". No, not if it is your
homestead or residence in most cases. If you own two
homes, then probably only one can be kept. However, you
must show that you can make payments for your home's
mortgage. There are different laws in different states
pertaining to what assets you may keep. (e.g. In Texas,
some of the items which you are entitled to keep besides
your home are two guns, farming and ranching vehicles,
two horses, mules, or donkeys plus a saddle, blanket and
bridle for each, 12 head of cattle, 60 head of other
types of livestock, and 120 fowl.... There are other,
more germane possessions or assets, but I thought this
'Texas flair' was kind of cool.) There are also several
different types of bankruptcy, i.e. Chapter 7 or Chapter
11 or Chapter 13. The rules may vary to the type filed.
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I've
been in debtors court with a delinquent mortgage. Is it
possible for me to buy another home? Are there programs
available to me while I am debtors court?
-
Are all
licensed real estate agents able to sell HUD homes, or do
they have to obtain some other special license, designation
or certification?
-
Is it
okay to have an interest only mortgage for 6 months to 2
years, if you are on a fixed income or retired?
-
Interest only mortgages can reduce your payment since
you are not paying principal along with your monthly
interest payment. If you are on a fixed income, such as
a retirement pension, having a smaller mortgage payment
can really help the budget.
The negative factor is pretty easy to see. At the end of
6 months or 2 years (the time frames you mentioned) your
payment will be increased to cover interest and
principal and the new payment might be higher than you
expect. Whenever mortgage payments are too high and you
can't make them, the situation changes your life. You
will have to increase your income to cover the payment,
or sell the house, or lose the house to foreclosure.
If you are totally comfortable with the increased
payment down the road, then by all means do the interest
only payment if you want to. But if you are only doing
it because a loan officer recommended it, then make sure
you know what you're up against before you sign.
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- If
you're on a fixed income/retired, and your home is paid
for, maybe what you want is a "reverse mortgage". They
can be a good option for some folks in that situation,
and provide a regular flow of cash. A reverse mortgage
may or may not be the best option for you, complete our
online application and we will be happy to help you
evaluate all your options
http://www.amhbsc.com/ . Here is
additional information from AARP:
http://www.aarp.org/money/revmort/
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Here are the questions that only you can answer for
yourself:
1. Do you know how you will make the higher payment at
the end of the 6 months or 2 years? If you can afford
the higher payment when the interest only period is
over, then go for it and use the money saved during the
first 6 months or 2 years for something else.
2. Does it worry you that your house isn't paid for?
There is no point in you losing sleep over something if
making a regular payment will stop the worrying.
3. Is your ultimate plan to make the payments with your
fixed income and let your estate sell the house and pay
off the mortgage? This is a perfectly legit plan and
should that be your choice, then why not enjoy 6 months
to 2 years of smaller payments?
Any time that you choose to make interest only payments,
you are merely delaying the time when the principal must
be paid. If you are betting that the value will
appreciate enough to cover the costs of selling or if
you are waiting for an increase in income that you know
is on the way, an interest only loan makes sense.
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Is there
such thing as a 4 payment option loan with a minimum start
rate of 1.00% or 1.95% (fixed for 12 months) that has a 7.5%
annual cap for the first payment option that does NOT accrue
negative AM?
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Can I get
financial assistance for a fixer-upper?
If you need home loan to buy a
"fixer-upper" and remodel it, look at the U.S.
Department of Housing and Urban Development's Section
203(K) loan program. The program is designed to
facilitate major structural rehabilitation of houses
with one to four units that are more than one year old.
Condominiums are not eligible.
A 203(K) loan is usually done as a combination loan to
purchase a "fixer-upper" property "as is" and
rehabilitate it, or to refinance a temporary loan to buy
the property and do the rehabilitation. It can also be
done as a rehabilitation-only loan.
Investors must put 15 percent down while owner-occupants
are required to come up with only 3 to 5 percent. HUD
requires that a minimum of $5,000 be spent on
improvements.
Two appraisals are required. Plans and specifications
for the proposed work must be submitted for
architectural review and cost estimation. Mortgage
proceeds are advanced periodically during the
rehabilitation period to finance the construction costs.
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What is a
"loan broker", and how do I find one?
A loan broker works in a similar capacity
as a travel agent. He has access to 100-150 lenders, and
he matches the requirements of the applicant with an
appropriate lender. He works the wholesale end of the
loan market, and the lender pays a fee to the mortgage
broker for the loan. If the buyer were to contact the
lender directly, he would be working the retail side,
and would not necessarily get a better rate.
Additionally, the mortgage broker is usually referred by
a real estate agent or prior client, so he is more
accountable for the outcome of the process than someone
at the other end of the phone at a bank. To find one,
ask a real estate agent, ask a friend, look on-line.
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Can a
home owner leave money in their escrow account and borrow
from it later?
-
The lender controls the escrow account and the federal
laws that regulate that control are pretty strict. You
will be required to pay a monthly amount that is
actually determined by a Federally determined formula.
Of course, the tax and insurance amounts plugged in by
the lender have to be correct for the formula to work!
At least once a year the account must be analyzed by the
lender and any extra in the account must be dealt with.
You might receive a letter that says you can get a check
or apply the amount to principal. Because taxes and
insurance generally go up rather than down, you won't
have a surplus in the account very often.
If you want to save a little extra for a rainy day, put
the money in an ordinary savings account. At least then
you will earn interest. Any money that you send to the
lender will risk being misapplied and no one in the
customer service department will have a clue how to
answer you if you say you want to borrow some of it
back.
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- If
you can, it would be a poor way to save money, and a
hassle. Why not put this extra money in your own savings
account, CD, or Money Market? That way, you'll earn a
little interest, maybe at least keep up with inflation,
and have easier access to it.
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Is it
possible to transfer real estate property to my son? Is
there another way to secure personal property from
liability?
- If
there's already some established liability, it's too
late. Or if there's something you anticipate in the very
near future, it's probably too late. Otherwise, you can
give your son property, probably for some amount like
"One dollar, love and affection". You will want an
attorney to advise you about the tax and liability
implications.
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How old is your son?
And I second what the first poster said about being too
late for transferring if the event that causes you to be
concerned for your property has already occurred.
It is very simple for the courts to determine when the
transfer took place and invalidate the transfer if it
was for the purpose of avoiding paying a judgment, etc.
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In a
joint tenants / survivorship situation, if some owners wish
to sell and others don't, can a sale be forced by the court?
-
What is
a first time home buyer loan?
Sometimes a first time home buyer loan is an actual loan program created by the State or City to promote home ownership. In that case, the fund is created, qualifying guidelines are established, and lenders are invited to participate by offering the loan program to their customers.
An example would be the State of Illinois's IDHA program, which is low interest money available to first time homebuyers through the Illinois Housing Authority. Another example is the City of Rockford offering grants to first time homebuyers to help with the down payment and closing costs to buy a home.
Many times regular mortgage loans through FHA, Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac are presented as first time home buyer loans because the guidelines have been expanded to make it easier to enter the housing market. Those programs may or may not be limited to first timers and they may or may not have any real advantage to your situation.
An example of an expanded guideline might be that the debt ratio can be higher or the credit file can be developed with alternative methods. It might even mean that several members of a family living together can pool their income and
down payment to buy a house.
Note that FHA is not limited to first time homebuyers or even buyers who marginally qualify. The FHA programs are used most often for those buyers, but FHA authorities would love to have some low-risk loans in the portfolio, too.
Another note: Very often a first time homebuyer is defined as someone who has not owned a home in the last 3 years. The 3 years can even be reduced if it can be shown that the previous home was granted to an ex-spouse in a divorce situation.
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Is it
legal to buy a 4 units build with 80% loan from the bank and
the 20% with the seller financing?
-
Legal, YES, unless you're withholding from the bank
the fact that you're borrowing the other 20%; then it
could be fraud. The bank is likely assuming that the 20%
is from your own pocket, and may not agree to your
financing that portion. If they do, they will insist
that the seller be the "second mortgage", so that their
interest is protected first. So long as you're up front
with everybody about the nature of the deal, and it's
all agreed to in writing at closing, you're fine. Just
don't hide any details from anybody at any point.
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The percentage you are
borrowing for a loan is not regulated by law, it is
regulated by the lender. The institution that is
lending the monies will have specific guidelines they
must follow in order to lend monies. These
guidelines are determined by the investor who is lending
the monies to said lending institution. A private
investor program will have different lending guidelines
than will a loan program back by Fannie Mae or Freddie
Mac, government insured monies.
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Is it
easier for a couple to get a mortgage if they're married?
- No. It is based on income.
The mortgage company doesn't care how they are paid only
that they are.
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- It all really does depend on income
and stability, as stated in a previous answer,
regardless of whether or not the mortgage applicant is
married. In fact, the number of unmarried home buyers
has sharply increased from just 15 years ago. The
following is an excerpt from article published in an
online magazine for real estate professionals:
http://www.therealestatepro.com/articles/articles_05/mccrea.html
"According to SMR, single borrowers have grown steadily
as a portion of all home...
(read full answer)
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Marital status is one of the things lenders are forbidden to discriminate against, so the answer should be no. The lender will use all disclosed income from all borrowers to qualify, as long as the guidelines for verifying that income are met.
Some loan programs require that all borrowers must occupy the property, some programs call for income to be verified in writing, sometimes income and assets do not need to be verified at all. In the case of a VA (Veterans Administration) guaranteed loan, the VA will only guarantee the portion borrowed by the Veteran, or the Veteran's spouse, so in the case of an unmarried Veteran, with a co-borrower, the VA would guarantee a smaller portion of the loan, unless the co-borrower was also a Veteran and had eligibility that could be used.
All other qualifying issues being equal, marital status should have no bearing on the loan application.
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Are
monthly impound payments disclosed in the note?
- No
but they are easy enough to calculate
1/12th of your annual tax figure
1/12th of your annual hazard insurance figure
1/12th of your mortgage insurance premium (if any)
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Not usually. The note is your obligation to pay the
principal amount of the loan, at an agreed interest
rate, with payments spelled out in the note. There might
be language about the final amount remaining after
agreed upon payments end and there might be a rider that
explains how interest rates might adjust.
The monthly impounds are usually left to the "payment"
letter, since the "legal" obligation for those payments
is pretty much limited to what the mortgage document
spells out as your need to keep the premises insured
against hazards and the taxes paid to prevent liens.
Since Homeowners' Association Dues can be liens against
the property if unpaid, you are obligated to keep them
current by the language in the mortgage about keeping
the premises lien-free.
The amounts of your monthly impounds can change if you
change insurance companies and the premium changes. The
amount of your premium can go up each year and usually
does. Your property taxes will probably go up each year
also. Every time your lender pays a bill from escrow,
the payment could be adjusted to reflect the change in
the annual amount due.
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How can
I get a government grant for home improvement?
-
I was
approved for a 100% financial mortgage but the realtor is
requesting $10,000 in good faith money? What does that mean?
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